Question 1 · LEK · Iron deficiency anemia
A 52-year-old woman receiving orally iron formulations because of mild microcytic anaemia complains of abnormally heavy menorrhagia. The doctor ordered faecal guaiac occult blood test (FOBT) three times and the results were positive. Which strategy should be chosen first?
- A. colonoscopy.
- B. FOBT should be repeated after discontinuation of iron formulations.
- C. coeliac disease should be excluded.
- D. diet with elimination of high doses of vitamin C and repeat the test.
- E. decision needs to be based on gastrointestinal symptoms.
Hint
Consider what a positive occult blood test means in a patient over 50 with iron-deficiency anaemia, even if another bleeding source exists.
The answer, the explanation and a note on every option are available once you log in. The account is free: topic tests, a mock exam, mistake review and statistics.
More questions on Internal medicine
- Which of the following medications should be avoided in the patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, with left ventricular outflow tract peak…
- The extra-articular manifestations in rheumatoid arthritis include:
- A 62-year-old patient with arterial hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents at his family doctor office because of a retrosternal stubbing pain…
- A 70-year-old patient, treated for arterial hypertension for over 30 years, called his family doctor because of lower limb edemas worsening for a…
- Non-cardiac conditions that predispose towards atrial fibrillation include:
- The abnormalities in ECG which are characteristic of hyperkalemia include: