LDEK questions: Oral surgery — page 7
481 questions in Oral surgery. Open a question to see the answer options and a hint.
- “Horizontal incision performed within 2 mm from the floor of gingival fissure or periodontal pocket within attached gingiva and related with its arched shape to the… Question 301
- General absolute contraindications for tooth extraction include: Question 302
- Which of the below mentioned techniques does not qualify as an atraumatic tooth extraction? Question 303
- Augmentation material deriving from adequately processed own tooth is characterized with following features: Question 304
- Most of the organic components of an augmentation material coming from a processed own tooth are: Question 305
- Class B of the Tetsch and Wagner classification refers to: Question 306
- Select the correct statement describing tooth extraction management in patients with a history of radiation therapy involving the oral cavity, head and neck: Question 307
- Which agents should be avoided in patients receiving diuretics in the treatment of congestive heart disease? Question 308
- This space is bounded superiorly by the mylohyoid muscle; inferiorly and laterally by the skin, superficial layer of the cervical fascia and the platysma muscle… Question 309
- It is a congenital benign tumour caused by the proliferation of endothelial cells with a clinical picture that is impossible to differentiate from a vascular… Question 310
- Select the false statement describing primary intraosseous odontogenic squamous cell carcinoma (PIOSCC): Question 311
- Radiographic findings in patients with an aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC) that are particularly visible in the anteroposterior view and are suggestive of sarcoma could be… Question 312
- The recommended haematological management of patients with haemophilia B when preparing for surgery involves the use of: Question 313
- Dental procedures that do not require antibiotic prophylaxis in patients at risk for bacterial endocarditis include: Question 314
- A natural-origin resorbable suture can be made of: Question 315
- The most universal and most frequently used dental surgical blade is blade number: Question 316
- This technique was developed for immediate implantation deferred by 6 weeks in the aesthetic segments of the maxilla and mandible. The aim is to develop a soft tissue… Question 317
- Risk factors for the development of oral cavity squamous cell carcinoma include: Question 318
- If primary stabilization of a transplanted tooth in the recipient site is satisfactory, it can be immobilized using compression sutures alone. If a sufficient degree of… Question 319
- The extent of sinus membrane lift performed using the closed approach should not exceed: Question 320
- Select the false statement about postextraction alveolitis: Question 321
- One of the adverse effects of antibiotic therapy with amoxicillin and clavulanic acid is pseudomembranous colitis due to Clostridium difficile. It can be treated with: Question 322
- The most frequent tumours of the parapharyngeal space are: Question 323
- Select the false statement about floor of the mouth cancer: Question 324
- Transformation into primary intraosseous carcinoma is most often observed in: Question 325
- Which of the following accounts for 0.4% of dental cysts and 0.7% of all maxillary cysts? Question 326
- This method is used for treating extensive and, especially, recurrent keratocysts or glandular cysts, in particular when a visualization study reveals propagation… Question 327
- The incidence of complications associated with a bacterial infection following surgical wisdom tooth extraction in immunocompetent patients lies in the range of: Question 328
- During high-risk dental procedures in adult patients at the highest risk of infective endocarditis it is necessary to use: Question 329
- It is a strong COX-1 inhibitor that also inhibits 5-lipoxygenase, has anti-bradykinin effects, and inhibits neutrophil activation. Given that it is a preferential COX-1… Question 330
- Indicate the false statement: Question 331
- Indicate which of the following is not used in the course of surgical treatment of secondary chronic osteitis: Question 332
- Indicate the true statement regarding immediate implant placement: Question 333
- Post-extraction alveolar osteitis is not attributable to: Question 334
- Traditionally, this syndrome is considered a triad of arthritis, conjunctivitis and urethritis, and it mostly affects men aged 20-30. The other common symptoms include… Question 335
- Indicate which of the following is the passive material that is not used for teeth splinting: Question 336
- A sialogram of a degenerative salivary gland disease shows: Question 337
- Indicate the false statement regarding erythroplakia: Question 338
- What is the primary mechanism of degenerative joint disease and what structures are most commonly involved? Question 339
- Indicate the true statement regarding mucoepidermoid tumor: Question 340
- Which of the lasers used for soft tissue surgery allows deep tissue penetration, has low absorption in water, enables using a pulse mode and can be used both for… Question 341
- Indicate the statement that best describes oral potentially malignant disorders (OPMD) and the related diagnostic workup: Question 342
- Indicate the true statement regarding lesions and bone cysts containing giant cells: Question 343
- Indicate the false statement regarding benign bone and cartilage tumors in the region of the head and neck: Question 344
- Indicate the false statement regarding rare odontogenic carcinomas: Question 345
- Indicate the true statement regarding ameloblastic carcinoma (AC): Question 346
- Indicate the statement that best describes differences in the diagnosis and management of acute paranasal sinusitis (APS) and chronic paranasal sinusitis (CPS): Question 347
- What is the minimal recommended spacing between two adjacent implants in a dental arch? Question 348
- A patient is scheduled for implant placement in the anterior maxilla. Which approach will help to minimize the risk of buccal bone plate resorption? Question 349
- Which of the following local anaesthetic agents features pKa value higher than 8.3? Question 350