Question 246 · LEK · Cross-cutting topics
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of a 2-day history of fever and painful swelling of the left ankle. In the past he had recurrent cervical lymphadenitis caused by catalase-positive staphylococcus and was hospitalized twice because of pneumonia. Nitroblue tetrazolium blood test shows no color change. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of the disorder?
- A. adenosine deaminase deficiency.
- B. complement depletion.
- C. impaired phagocytic oxidative metabolism.
- D. lack of CD4 positive lymphocytes.
- E. developmental disorder of lymphocyte B maturation.
Hint
A negative NBT test means the neutrophils cannot reduce the dye — think of the enzyme that generates superoxide.
The answer, the explanation and a note on every option are available once you log in. The account is free: topic tests, a mock exam, mistake review and statistics.
More questions on Pediatrics
- The sign and symptoms of hyperparathyroidism do not include:
- Cafe-au-lait spots are typical of:
- Which of the following hormones are released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
- Currently, the most common cause of acquired heart disease in children is:
- Which of the following is not typical of Henoch-Schönlein purpura?
- The syndrome inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, with the phenotype most similar to Turner syndrome (short stature, short neck, low ears)…